Question

Difficulty: MediumDepressive Disorders

Match the following patient clinical profiles with the most appropriate next step in management.

  • 70-year-old man, 3 weeks post-myocardial infarction, meeting criteria for major depressive disorder.Initiate sertraline
  • 28-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy with psychotic depression and refusal of oral intake.Schedule urgent electroconvulsive therapy
  • 40-year-old man with major depressive disorder, experiencing persistent sexual dysfunction and fatigue on an SSRI.Augment with bupropion
  • 25-year-old woman with major depressive disorder characterized by prominent insomnia and significant weight loss.Initiate mirtazapine
  • 22-year-old man with severe depression and a history of a 7-day period of euphoric mood, grandiosity, and decreased need for sleep.Initiate quetiapine

Answer

The most appropriate management strategies are matched as follows: the post-myocardial infarction patient with sertraline, the pregnant patient with psychotic depression with urgent electroconvulsive therapy, the patient with SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction with bupropion augmentation, the patient with insomnia and weight loss with mirtazapine, and the patient with a history of mania with quetiapine.
The correct matches align specific interventions with the unique clinical presentations of each patient, ensuring efficacy while minimizing risks and addressing prominent side effects or symptoms.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the cardiovascular risk profile of the 70-year-old man.
Identify that a post-myocardial infarction status requires a medication with high cardiac safety.
Tricyclic antidepressants and some SSRIs can cause arrhythmias or interact with cardiac medications; sertraline is proven safe.
2
Evaluate the acuity of the 28-year-old pregnant woman.
Determine that psychosis and food refusal necessitate a rapid, life-saving intervention.
Electroconvulsive therapy is highly effective and safe for both the mother and fetus in psychiatric emergencies.
3
Analyze the side effect burden of the 40-year-old man.
Recognize that SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction and residual fatigue require a mechanism change.
Adding an NDRI like bupropion targets these specific residual symptoms without compounding sexual dysfunction.
4
Identify the prominent neurovegetative symptoms in the 25-year-old woman.
Select an agent that promotes sleep and appetite.
Mirtazapine's antagonism of H1 receptors directly treats her insomnia and weight loss.
5
Recognize the past manic episode in the 22-year-old man's history.
Diagnose bipolar I depression and select an appropriate mood-stabilizing agent.
Quetiapine treats bipolar depression while avoiding the risk of a manic switch associated with SSRI monotherapy.

Key Concept

Tailoring the pharmacological and procedural management of depressive disorders requires careful consideration of medical comorbidities, prominent symptom profiles, clinical acuity, and past psychiatric history.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
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