A 24-year-old woman comes to the clinic because she has not had a menstrual period for the past 3 months. Menarche occurred at age 12, and her menses had previously occurred at regular 28-day intervals. She has no other symptoms such as headaches, visual changes, or nipple discharge. She takes no daily medications and has no chronic medical conditions. She is sexually active with a male partner and relies on the withdrawal method for contraception. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg, pulse of 74/min, and BMI of 23 kg/m². Physical examination shows normal breast development, no hirsutism or acne, and a normal pelvic examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in evaluating this patient's condition?
- Measurement of serum human chorionic gonadotropinAnswer
- BMeasurement of serum prolactin and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels
- CPelvic ultrasonography
- DEndometrial biopsy
- EAdministration of oral medroxyprogesterone acetate