During morning rounds, a -year-old female is evaluated on her third day of hospitalization for community-acquired pneumonia. She initially presented with a fever, productive cough, and worsening shortness of breath. Her medical history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and osteoarthritis. On admission, she was started on intravenous levofloxacin and oral prednisone.
Today, she reports feeling much better and is tolerating a regular diet. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is mm Hg, pulse is /min, and respiratory rate is /min. Pulse oximetry shows on room air.
Physical examination reveals a normal jugular venous pressure of cm . Lung auscultation shows prolonged expiration and scattered end-expiratory wheezes, but the bibasilar crackles heard on admission have resolved. She has trace bilateral pitting edema at the ankles, which is unchanged from her baseline.
Laboratory results from this morning show:
Leukocyte count:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): (Normal: )
Free thyroxine (T4): ng/dL (Normal: ng/dL)
Arterial blood gas (room air):
:
: mm Hg
: mm Hg
: mEq/L
Sputum cultures obtained on admission have grown Streptococcus pneumoniae that is susceptible to penicillin, amoxicillin, ceftriaxone, levofloxacin, and vancomycin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Transition to oral amoxicillinAnswer
- BContinue intravenous levofloxacin
- CInitiate oral levothyroxine
- DAdminister intravenous furosemide
- EInitiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation