A medical team is reviewing the chart of an inpatient being treated for a severe right-sided soft tissue infection. The patient, who has a history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, presented two days ago with rigors, marked localized erythema, and a temperature of 39.0 C (102.2 F). Upon admission, blood cultures were drawn, and empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam were initiated. Today, the patient is clinically stable and afebrile. The microbiology laboratory reports that both sets of admission blood cultures are growing Staphylococcus aureus. Susceptibility testing indicates the isolate is sensitive to oxacillin, cefazolin, and clindamycin, but resistant to penicillin and ampicillin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Discontinue the current regimen and initiate intravenous cefazolinAnswer
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CDiscontinue piperacillin-tazobactam and continue intravenous vancomycin
- DDiscontinue the current regimen and initiate intravenous daptomycin
- EDiscontinue the current regimen and initiate oral clindamycin