A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of high fevers, chills, and sharp, pleuritic chest pain. He also reports a cough productive of scant, blood-tinged sputum. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Oxygen saturation is on room air. Physical examination reveals prominent needle track marks on his forearms. Cardiac auscultation demonstrates a grade holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border; the murmur's intensity increases significantly during inspiration. Pulmonary auscultation reveals scattered crackles in both lung fields. A chest radiograph demonstrates multiple bilateral peripheral nodular opacities, several of which have central cavitation. Three sets of blood cultures are obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- Intravenous vancomycinAnswer
- BIntravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- COral isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
- DIntravenous heparin infusion
- EIntravenous ampicillin-sulbactam