A 29-year-old G1P0 at 38 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery ward with painful uterine contractions. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . She is currently positioned in the left lateral decubitus position and receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of lactated Ringer solution. Cervical examination reveals dilation to , effacement, and station. The amniotic membranes ruptured spontaneously 3 hours ago, and the fluid was clear. Tocodynamometry shows uterine contractions occurring every 3 minutes and lasting 50 seconds. Fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of with moderate variability. Over the past 30 minutes, there have been recurrent, abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate to that last for 40 seconds before rapidly returning to the baseline. These decelerations occur with most contractions but have a varied onset relative to the contraction peak. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AmnioinfusionAnswer
- BCesarean delivery
- CAdministration of oxytocin
- DAdministration of terbutaline
- EFetal scalp stimulation