A physician evaluates a 68-year-old woman who is currently on hospital day 3 for the treatment of urosepsis. Upon admission to the intensive care unit three days ago, the patient was hypotensive and febrile. She received aggressive fluid resuscitation and was empirically started on intravenous vancomycin and cefepime. She was transferred to the general medical ward yesterday. Today, her vital signs are stable, she has been afebrile for 24 hours, and she is comfortably eating a regular diet. Initial blood and urine cultures now show growth of *Escherichia coli*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals the isolate is sensitive to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, but resistant to ampicillin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antibiotic therapy?
- AContinue intravenous vancomycin and cefepime
- BContinue intravenous cefepime and discontinue vancomycin
- Transition to oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleAnswer
- DSwitch to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- ESwitch to intravenous meropenem