A 62-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on hospital day 3. He was initially admitted for fever, chills, and a warm, swollen right calf. On admission, his temperature was 39.1 C (102.4 F), blood pressure was 105/65 mm Hg, and pulse was 110/min. He was started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam. Today, his temperature is 37.4 C (99.3 F), blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. The erythema on his right calf has significantly decreased. Blood cultures drawn on admission are positive for Staphylococcus aureus in 2 of 2 bottles. Susceptibility testing shows the isolate is resistant to penicillin but susceptible to oxacillin, cefazolin, and vancomycin. The patient has no history of medication allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Switch to intravenous cefazolinAnswer
- BDiscontinue piperacillin-tazobactam and continue intravenous vancomycin
- CDiscontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DSwitch to intravenous daptomycin
- EContinue the current antibiotic regimen