A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic for a routine well-child visit. He has not been evaluated by a physician since his 6-month visit because his family relocated. At 10 months of age, he was hospitalized for 5 days with a prolonged high fever, bilateral nonexudative conjunctivitis, mucosal changes, and unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. Echocardiography at that time showed normal coronary arteries. He was treated successfully with high-dose aspirin and a single infusion of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). He currently takes no medications. Developmentally, he walks independently and uses three specific words. He lives with his parents and a 4-year-old sister who is receiving maintenance chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia. His immunization records indicate he received all recommended vaccinations at 2, 4, and 6 months of age. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer the appropriate inactivated vaccines, defer live-attenuated vaccines due to exogenous antibody interference, and reassure the parents regarding his development.Answer
- BAdminister the appropriate inactivated vaccines, defer live-attenuated vaccines to prevent viral transmission to his sister, and reassure the parents regarding his development.
- CAdminister all missing inactivated and live-attenuated vaccines to provide indirect protection for his sister, and reassure the parents regarding his development.
- DAdminister the appropriate inactivated vaccines, defer live-attenuated vaccines due to exogenous antibody interference, and refer the patient for developmental evaluation.
- EAdminister all missing inactivated and live-attenuated vaccines to complete the catch-up schedule, and refer the patient for developmental evaluation.