During a routine evaluation at a women's health clinic, a 31-year-old G2P2 reports a 4-day history of worsening lower pelvic discomfort, deep dyspareunia, and intermittent vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual period occurred 2 weeks ago. She mentions becoming sexually active with a new partner two months ago. Her medical history is significant for the insertion of a copper intrauterine device three years ago. Her temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and pulse is 88/min. Speculum examination reveals a yellow, mucopurulent discharge at the cervical os along with visible intrauterine device strings. Bimanual examination elicits significant cervical motion tenderness as well as bilateral adnexal fullness and guarding. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Administer intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole; leave the intrauterine device in placeAnswer
- BRemove the intrauterine device, then administer intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole
- CAdmit the patient for intravenous cefoxitin and oral doxycycline; leave the intrauterine device in place
- DAdminister intramuscular ceftriaxone and a single dose of oral azithromycin; leave the intrauterine device in place
- EAdminister oral ciprofloxacin and oral metronidazole; leave the intrauterine device in place