A 54-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of profound fatigue, intermittent joint pain in his hands, and a recurrent rash on his lower legs. He has a past medical history of a brief period of intravenous drug use in his early twenties. He currently takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a non-blanching, palpable purpuric rash over the bilateral shins and ankles. There is mild symmetric tenderness and swelling of the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints.
Laboratory evaluation is as follows:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | ||
| Platelets | ||
| Creatinine | ||
| AST | ||
| ALT | ||
| Rheumatoid factor | Positive | Negative |
| Complement C3 | ||
| Complement C4 |
Urinalysis shows 2+ protein, red blood cells/hpf, and occasional red blood cell casts.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic evaluation of this patient?
- AAntineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody assay
- Testing for hepatitis C virus RNAAnswer
- CAntinuclear antibody assay
- DTesting for hepatitis B surface antigen
- EBlood cultures and transesophageal echocardiography