A 65-year-old male is reevaluated during bedside rounds on his third day of hospitalization. He originally presented to the emergency department with high fever, left-sided costovertebral angle tenderness, and dysuria. Due to a history of recurrent urinary tract infections and a recent skilled nursing facility admission, he was empirically started on intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam. His clinical condition has markedly improved; he has been afebrile for 24 hours, and his flank pain has resolved. Blood and urine cultures drawn on admission now demonstrate growth of Enterococcus faecalis. The isolate is susceptible to ampicillin, vancomycin, linezolid, and daptomycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- Initiate intravenous ampicillin monotherapyAnswer
- BMaintain therapy with vancomycin and cease piperacillin-tazobactam
- CMaintain the current antimicrobial combination
- DSwitch therapy to oral linezolid
- ECease vancomycin and maintain piperacillin-tazobactam