An oncology clinic evaluates a patient undergoing induction chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia who developed chills and a high temperature earlier today. The patient reports generalized weakness but denies cough, dysuria, abdominal pain, or skin changes. Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , heart rate of , and respiratory rate of . Physical examination is unremarkable, with clear lung fields and no induration or erythema at the central venous catheter site. Laboratory studies reveal a total leukocyte count of with neutrophils and bands. After obtaining appropriate blood and urine cultures, which of the following is the most appropriate empiric pharmacotherapy?
- Intravenous cefepimeAnswer
- BIntravenous cefepime and vancomycin
- CIntravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- DOral ciprofloxacin and amoxicillin-clavulanate
- EIntravenous fluconazole
Answer
Intravenous cefepime
The correct answer provides monotherapy with an antipseudomonal beta-lactam. Neutropenic fever is an oncologic emergency defined by an Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) < and a single temperature equivalent to () or () sustained for over 1 hour. This patient's ANC is . In high-risk patients (such as those with profound neutropenia from hematologic malignancies), prompt initiation of empiric bactericidal intravenous therapy covering Pseudomonas aeruginosa is mandated. Cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and meropenem are the drugs of choice.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
The initial management of high-risk febrile neutropenia requires prompt initiation of an intravenous antipseudomonal beta-lactam antibiotic.
Estimated Time:1m 15s