A 25-year-old nulliparous woman at 40 weeks and 2 days gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor. An intravenous oxytocin infusion is initiated. Six hours later, the patient is reporting significant pain but is coping well with epidural anesthesia. Her temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, and pulse is 92/min. The cervix is 6 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and the fetal head is at 0 station. Review of the external tocodynamometer over the past 30 minutes shows 7 uterine contractions per 10-minute window, with each contraction lasting 60 to 80 seconds. The continuous fetal heart rate monitor demonstrates a baseline of 130/min, minimal variability, and visually apparent, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that nadir after the peak of the contractions and return to baseline after the contractions conclude. The patient's hemoglobin is 10.8 g/dL with a normal mean corpuscular volume. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the intravenous oxytocin infusionAnswer
- BProceed to emergent cesarean delivery
- CInitiate a transcervical amnioinfusion
- DAdminister intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin
- EProvide reassurance and maintain the current infusion rate