A 62-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 3-week history of low-grade fevers, fatigue, and progressive shortness of breath. His medical history is significant for mitral valve prolapse with severe regurgitation. Temperature is (), pulse is , and blood pressure is . Cardiac examination reveals a grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur at the apex. Small, painless, erythematous macules are noted on the palms.
Laboratory studies show:
- Leukocyte count:
- Hemoglobin:
- Serum creatinine: (baseline three months ago)
Urinalysis reveals 2+ protein, 15-20 red blood cells/hpf, and the presence of red blood cell casts.
Three sets of blood cultures are drawn, and empiric intravenous vancomycin and cefepime are initiated. Transesophageal echocardiography reveals a oscillating vegetation on the posterior mitral leaflet.
On hospital day 3, all blood culture bottles grow *Enterococcus faecalis*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals the following minimum inhibitory concentrations (MIC):
- Ampicillin: (Susceptible)
- Vancomycin: (Susceptible)
- Gentamicin (high-level testing): Susceptible
The laboratory report includes a standard comment: 'Enterococci are intrinsically resistant to cephalosporins, antistaphylococcal penicillins, and clindamycin in vitro.'
The patient's serum creatinine remains elevated at .
Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- AIntravenous ampicillin and gentamicin
- BIntravenous vancomycin and gentamicin
- Intravenous ampicillin and ceftriaxoneAnswer
- DIntravenous ampicillin monotherapy
- EIntravenous daptomycin monotherapy