A 51-year-old woman comes to the office due to a 4-day history of spotting and light vaginal bleeding. She reached menopause at age 49 and has not had any vaginal bleeding since then. Her past medical history includes obesity, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Current medications are metformin, lisinopril, and amlodipine. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 142/88 mm Hg, a pulse of 76/min, and a BMI of 34 kg/m². Pelvic examination reveals normal external genitalia and a small amount of dark red blood in the vaginal vault. The cervix appears grossly normal without any visible lesions. A urine pregnancy test is negative. A transvaginal ultrasound is performed and shows an endometrial stripe thickness of 7 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Endometrial biopsyAnswer
- BReassurance and repeat transvaginal ultrasound in 6 months
- CMeasurement of serum thyroid-stimulating hormone
- DInitiation of combined oral contraceptive pills
- EApplication of topical vaginal estrogen