On postoperative day 3 following an open reduction and internal fixation of a right tibial fracture, a 51-year-old male is evaluated by the on-call physician for acute, severe agitation and confusion. The fracture was sustained during a motor vehicle collision. The patient lives alone and a comprehensive medical history is unavailable. Current temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), pulse is 126/min, blood pressure is 168/102 mm Hg, and respirations are 22/min. On examination, the patient is profoundly diaphoretic and continuously attempts to pull out his intravenous catheter. When approached, he points frantically toward the ceiling and claims that swarms of insects are dropping onto his bed. Neurological examination reveals a coarse, bilateral resting tremor of the upper extremities. The surgical incision is clean, intact, and without erythema. Cardiopulmonary auscultation is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous administration of diazepamAnswer
- BBlood cultures and empiric piperacillin-tazobactam
- CIntramuscular administration of haloperidol
- DPsychiatric consultation for schizophreniform disorder
- EComputed tomography angiography of the chest