Question

During a health maintenance visit, a $54$-year-old woman (G2P2) returns to the clinic to discuss the results of her recent cervical cancer screening. Two weeks prior, she underwent a routine Pap test and reported a self-resolving episode of brownish vaginal spotting. She reached menopause at age $50$ and does not take hormone replacement therapy. Her past medical history is notable for obesity with a body mass index of $32$ and well-controlled hypertension. The cytology report indicates atypical glandular cells (AGC), and high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) co-testing is negative. Pelvic examination demonstrates a parous, normal-appearing cervix without visible lesions, and bimanual examination reveals a mobile, non-tender uterus of normal size. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup for this patient?