A 54-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for a new-onset fever. He was admitted 6 days ago following a severe motor vehicle collision that resulted in multiple rib fractures and a pulmonary contusion. He required endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation on the day of admission. Over the past 24 hours, he has developed a temperature of () and requires an increasing fraction of inspired oxygen () and positive end-expiratory pressure. Endotracheal suctioning yields thick, purulent secretions. A chest radiograph reveals a new right lower lobe consolidation. His leukocyte count is . A bronchoalveolar lavage is performed, and he is started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and cefepime. Two days later, his oxygenation has stabilized. The bronchoalveolar lavage fluid cultures grow of *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*. The isolate is susceptible to cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and meropenem. No other organisms are isolated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Discontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous cefepimeAnswer
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin and cefepime
- CDiscontinue vancomycin and replace cefepime with intravenous meropenem
- DDiscontinue vancomycin and add intravenous ciprofloxacin to the current regimen
- ETransition to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and linezolid