A 48-year-old woman is hospitalized in the hematology-oncology unit undergoing induction chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia. On hospital day 12, she develops chills and a new-onset fever. Her temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), blood pressure is 110/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 112/min. Physical examination reveals a clean central venous catheter insertion site and no focal signs of infection. Her absolute neutrophil count is 100/mm³. Two sets of blood cultures are obtained, and empiric therapy with intravenous cefepime is initiated. Forty-eight hours later, the patient is alert and her temperature has normalized to 37.2°C (99.0°F). Her vital signs are stable, and her absolute neutrophil count is now 150/mm³. The initial blood cultures are finalized, showing growth of Klebsiella pneumoniae in both sets. Susceptibility testing demonstrates that the isolate is sensitive to ceftriaxone, cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and meropenem, but resistant to ampicillin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antimicrobial management?
- Continue intravenous cefepimeAnswer
- BTransition to intravenous ceftriaxone
- CTransition to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DAdd intravenous vancomycin to the current regimen
- EAdd intravenous gentamicin to the current regimen