An emergency department physician evaluates a 31-year-old man who presents with a 4-week history of severe depressed mood, hypersomnia, and a 6-kg (13.2-lb) weight gain. He recently took a leave of absence from his job as an accountant because he "lacks the mental energy to look at spreadsheets." Review of his electronic medical record reveals a prior hospitalization one year ago for acute agitation, pressured speech, and decreased need for sleep lasting 10 days; during that admission, he was convinced he had discovered a secret formula for infinite energy. He currently takes no medications and has no other medical conditions. Vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory evaluation shows a normal comprehensive metabolic panel, negative urine toxicology screen, and a normal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. The physician is formulating a comprehensive management plan. Which of the following statements regarding the diagnosis and management of this patient are correct? (Select all that apply)
- Quetiapine monotherapy is an appropriate first-line pharmacological intervention for his current presentation.Answer
- BThe patient should be started on sertraline monotherapy to rapidly resolve his vegetative depressive symptoms.
- Routine screening of fasting plasma glucose and a lipid panel is indicated before and during his planned psychopharmacologic treatment.Answer
- DThe patient's history of a 10-day episode with grandiose delusions meets the criteria for brief psychotic disorder.
- EIf the patient were currently taking phenelzine, the addition of escitalopram would be an appropriate next step for treatment-resistant symptoms.