A 24-year-old G1P0 woman at 39 weeks of gestation is evaluated in the labor suite. She was admitted 4 hours ago in spontaneous active labor and is currently not receiving any medications. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 118/72 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination reveals mild bilateral lower extremity pitting edema and a grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur at the left sternal border. The cervix is 6 cm dilated and 90% effaced, with the fetal vertex at 0 station. Fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of 140/min with moderate variability. Over the last 30 minutes, there are recurrent, symmetric decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin gradually with the onset of each uterine contraction, reach their nadir of 120/min exactly at the peak of the contraction, and return to the baseline as the contraction ends. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AReposition the patient and administer an intravenous fluid bolus
- Continue routine expectant management of laborAnswer
- CAdminister intravenous magnesium sulfate
- DPrepare for immediate cesarean delivery
- EAdminister intravenous terbutaline