A 42-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on day 3 of admission for community-acquired pneumonia. He initially presented with a productive cough, high fever, and shortness of breath. Chest radiography on admission showed a right lower lobe infiltrate. He was empirically started on intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Blood and sputum cultures obtained on admission have now grown Streptococcus pneumoniae. Susceptibility testing reveals the isolate is highly susceptible to penicillin (minimum inhibitory concentration < 0.06 mcg/mL), amoxicillin, ceftriaxone, and levofloxacin. Today, his temperature is 37.0 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. His oxygen saturation is 97% on ambient air. He is tolerating a regular diet and reports feeling much better. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AContinue intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- BTransition to oral levofloxacin
- Transition to oral amoxicillinAnswer
- DTransition to oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- ETransition to oral amoxicillin and azithromycin