A 52-year-old man is evaluated on the surgical ward for a new-onset fever. He is currently on postoperative day 9 following an elective sigmoid colectomy for recurrent diverticulitis. His early postoperative course was complicated by a catheter-associated urinary tract infection diagnosed on postoperative day 2, for which his indwelling catheter was removed and he was started on intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam.
Currently, the patient reports feeling well and has been ambulating independently in the hallways. He has no abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, dysuria, or shortness of breath. He is tolerating a regular diet.
Vital signs are as follows:
| Parameter | Value |
|---|---|
| Temperature | 39.1°C (102.4°F) |
| Blood pressure | 126/78 mm Hg |
| Heart rate | 82/min |
| Respiratory rate | 14/min |
Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen with a clean, well-approximated surgical incision. There is no calf tenderness or edema. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.
Laboratory results:
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | 8,200/mm³ |
| Neutrophils | 60% |
| Lymphocytes | 28% |
| Eosinophils | 12% |
| Hemoglobin | 12.1 g/dL |
| Platelets | 250,000/mm³ |
Urinalysis is clear with no leukocyte esterase or nitrites.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AObtain computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BSwitch antibiotic therapy to intravenous meropenem
- Discontinue piperacillin-tazobactamAnswer
- DObtain blood cultures and continue current management
- EPerform lower extremity venous duplex ultrasonography