A -year-old male with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus is evaluated in the emergency department for severe perineal pain and swelling that has progressively worsened over the past hours. He reports subjective fevers, chills, and generalized weakness. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals a tense, swollen, and diffusely erythematous scrotum. There is a central area of grayish-purple skin discoloration. Palpation of the perineum and scrotum elicits exquisite tenderness, and a distinct crackling sensation is felt beneath the skin. Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of and a serum glucose of . Intravenous fluid resuscitation and broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy are initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate surgical exploration and radical debridement of necrotic tissuesAnswer
- BComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- CBedside incision and drainage of the discolored scrotal area
- DContinuation of medical therapy with serial clinical examinations every 4 hours
- EAdjustment of antimicrobial therapy based on immediate Gram stain of skin aspirate