A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for an elective induction of labor. A continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion was started 12 hours ago. Her pain is well controlled with a functioning epidural catheter. A cervical examination reveals that she is 6 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and at -1 station. The fetal heart rate monitor demonstrates a baseline of 150/min, minimal variability, and symmetric, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of the contractions and return to baseline after the contractions end. The tocodynamometer reveals 7 contractions every 10 minutes averaged over the last 30 minutes. The nursing staff immediately positions the patient in the left lateral decubitus position, administers a 500-mL intravenous fluid bolus of lactated Ringer solution, applies supplemental oxygen, and completely discontinues the oxytocin infusion. Reassessment 15 minutes later reveals that the contraction pattern remains at 7 contractions per 10 minutes, and the fetal heart rate tracing is unchanged. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer subcutaneous terbutalineAnswer
- BPerform an emergency cesarean delivery
- CInitiate transcervical amnioinfusion
- DPerform fetal scalp stimulation
- EReassure the patient and continue continuous monitoring