During morning rounds in the medical intensive care unit, a physician evaluates a 69-year-old male who was intubated two days prior for hypercapnic respiratory failure. The patient has a medical history significant for severe emphysema and hypertension. He initially presented to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation characterized by a productive cough and severe dyspnea, leading to emergent intubation. He is currently mechanically ventilated in the volume assist-control mode.
Today, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and oxygen saturation is on an of and a positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of . The set respiratory rate is .
Physical examination reveals diminished breath sounds bilaterally with a notably prolonged expiratory phase. A central venous catheter and a pulmonary artery catheter are in place. Hemodynamic monitoring shows a central venous pressure (CVP) of and a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) of .
Laboratory results are as follows:
Leukocyte count:
Serum sodium:
Serum chloride:
Serum bicarbonate:
Serum creatinine: (baseline )
Arterial blood gas analysis (on current ventilator settings):
pH:
:
:
A tracheal aspirate culture obtained at the time of intubation has grown heavy growth of *Staphylococcus aureus* that is susceptible to oxacillin, cefazolin, and vancomycin. The patient is currently receiving empiric intravenous meropenem and vancomycin.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Discontinue meropenem and vancomycin, and initiate intravenous cefazolinAnswer
- BAdminister intravenous bumetanide and restrict maintenance fluids
- CIncrease the mechanical ventilator respiratory rate
- DAdminister an intravenous bolus of sodium bicarbonate
- EContinue the current antimicrobial regimen to ensure broad-spectrum coverage