A 68-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his neighbor after collapsing in his driveway. The patient is awake but lethargic, complaining of agonizing, tearing pain in his left flank that radiates to his groin. His medical history includes hypertension, severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and atrial fibrillation. He states he ran out of all his medications two weeks ago.
Vital signs are temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure 76/48 mmHg, heart rate 134/min and irregularly irregular, respiratory rate 28/min, and oxygen saturation 92% on room air.
Physical examination reveals a pale, diaphoretic patient who is oriented only to person. Pulmonary auscultation reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes. The abdomen is distended, firm, and diffusely tender with absent bowel sounds. Deep palpation reveals a prominent pulsatile mass in the periumbilical region. A bedside ultrasound demonstrates a 7.2-cm infrarenal aortic aneurysm with a surrounding hypoechoic collection in the retroperitoneum.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BInsertion of a nasogastric tube and rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation
- Immediate transfer to the operating room for emergent surgical repairAnswer
- DAdministration of intravenous furosemide and ipratropium nebulizers
- EDeferment of intervention until his next-of-kin can provide informed consent