A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to severe, sudden-onset right scrotal pain that woke him from sleep 2 hours ago. He reports nausea and has vomited twice. He has no history of trauma, dysuria, or urethral discharge. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), heart rate is 105/min, and blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg. Physical examination reveals a swollen, exquisitely tender, and high-riding right testicle with a transverse lie. The right cremasteric reflex is absent, while the left is intact. Scrotal elevation does not relieve the pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate surgical explorationAnswer
- BColor Doppler ultrasound of the scrotum
- CIntramuscular ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
- DComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- EUrinalysis and urine culture
Answer
The most appropriate next step is immediate surgical exploration.
The correct answer is immediate surgical exploration. This patient presents with the classic triad of testicular torsion: sudden onset of severe scrotal pain, a high-riding transversely oriented testicle, and an absent cremasteric reflex. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency caused by twisting of the spermatic cord, leading to venous congestion, arterial compromise, and eventual testicular infarction. The window for testicular salvage is extremely narrow, typically 4 to 6 hours from symptom onset. Therefore, when the clinical diagnosis is highly suspected based on history and physical examination, the standard of care is immediate urologic consultation and surgical exploration. Bilateral orchiopexy (fixation of the testicles to the scrotal wall) is performed to prevent recurrence. Ordering any diagnostic imaging, including a Doppler ultrasound, is contraindicated in this scenario as it will delay definitive care and increase the likelihood of orchiectomy.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Management of high-suspicion acute testicular torsion