A 54-year-old man with a history of end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis is currently hospitalized for management of suspected endocarditis. He presented three days ago with a two-week history of fatigue, severe night sweats, and intermittent fevers. His hemodialysis is accessed via a right internal jugular tunneled catheter. Vital signs today show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , pulse of , and respiratory rate of . Cardiac auscultation reveals a new high-pitched, blowing early diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border. Transesophageal echocardiography reveals a oscillating vegetation on the aortic valve with severe aortic regurgitation. At the time of admission, empiric intravenous vancomycin and cefepime were initiated. Blood cultures drawn before the first antibiotic dose are now growing *Staphylococcus aureus*. The isolate is sensitive to oxacillin, cefazolin, and vancomycin, but resistant to penicillin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Discontinue vancomycin and cefepime, and begin intravenous cefazolinAnswer
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin and discontinue cefepime
- CDiscontinue vancomycin and cefepime, and begin oral clindamycin
- DContinue the current regimen and add intravenous gentamicin
- EDiscontinue vancomycin and cefepime, and begin intravenous daptomycin