A 28-year-old G2P1 woman at 36 weeks gestation presents to the labor triage unit complaining of mild, irregular abdominal cramping. Two hours ago, she was given intravenous fentanyl at an outside clinic for severe back pain. Her prenatal course was notable for a second-trimester anatomy ultrasound revealing a bilobed placenta. Shortly after admission, she experiences a sudden rush of clear fluid from her vagina, followed immediately by a gush of bright red blood. She denies any sharp or severe abdominal pain. Maternal vital signs are: blood pressure 118/76 mmHg, heart rate 86/min, and temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F). The abdomen is soft, non-tender, and without guarding. Fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of 150/min. The tracing exhibits a smooth, undulating, sine-wave-like pattern with a frequency of 3 to 4 cycles per minute, completely absent beat-to-beat variability, and no accelerations. This pattern has persisted for 25 minutes. A sterile speculum examination shows active bleeding pooling in the posterior fornix. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Proceed to emergent cesarean deliveryAnswer
- BAdminister maternal intravenous fluids and oxygen
- CPerform an amnioinfusion
- DContinue continuous fetal monitoring and expectant management
- EAdminister subcutaneous terbutaline