A healthy 24-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the maternity ward in spontaneous active labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. She is currently utilizing continuous epidural analgesia and reports excellent pain control. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 120/76 mmHg, and pulse is 82/min. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 to 4 minutes and feel firm on palpation. A sterile vaginal examination reveals the cervix is 8 cm dilated and 100% effaced, with the fetal vertex at +1 station. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring demonstrates a baseline heart rate of 145/min with moderate variability. During each uterine contraction, the fetal heart rate trace exhibits a gradual, symmetrical decrease to a nadir of 120/min. The nadir of the heart rate precisely aligns with the peak of the contraction, and the heart rate smoothly returns to baseline simultaneously with the resolution of the contraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Continue routine intrapartum careAnswer
- BAdminister maternal supplemental oxygen and reposition laterally
- CInitiate a transcervical amnioinfusion
- DAdminister subcutaneous terbutaline
- EPrepare for an emergent cesarean delivery