A 68-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to a syncopal episode at home. Over the past 3 days, he has experienced progressively worsening shortness of breath and a dry cough. His medical history is significant for severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a recent diagnosis of prostate cancer. His current medications include inhaled tiotropium, inhaled albuterol as needed, and metformin.
On arrival, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Pulse oximetry shows on room air.
Physical examination reveals significant jugular venous distention to the angle of the jaw. Cardiac auscultation demonstrates a loud second heart sound () at the left upper sternal border and a holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border that increases in intensity with inspiration. Lung auscultation reveals faint, bilateral end-expiratory wheezes without crackles. The right calf is visibly swollen and tender to palpation.
A bedside echocardiogram demonstrates a severely dilated, hypokinetic right ventricle with bowing of the interventricular septum into the left ventricle.
Arterial blood gas analysis on room air reveals:
pH:
:
:
:
Serum lactic acid is .
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous alteplaseAnswer
- BSystemic glucocorticoids and nebulized bronchodilators
- CIntravenous furosemide and noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
- DIntravenous vancomycin and cefepime
- EEndotracheal intubation and permissive hypercapnia