A 59-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his spouse due to the sudden onset of crushing substernal chest pain that began 1 hour ago. He also reports profound weakness and diaphoresis. His medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. His current temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg, heart rate is 110/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Pulse oximetry shows 95% on room air. On physical examination, the patient appears pale and diaphoretic. Jugular venous pulsation is visible 8 cm above the sternal angle. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally with no wheezes or crackles. Cardiac auscultation reveals a regular tachycardia with no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The extremities are cool and clammy with delayed capillary refill. Laboratory studies show a serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L and a lactate level of 4.5 mmol/L. An ECG reveals 3-mm ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as reciprocal ST-segment depressions in leads I and aVL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's hemodynamic instability?
- Intravenous isotonic saline bolusAnswer
- BIntravenous furosemide therapy
- CImmediate computed tomography angiography of the chest
- DEmpiric administration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- EIntravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion