A 65-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on day 3 of admission for community-acquired pneumonia. On presentation, he had a fever, productive cough, and a right lower lobe consolidation on chest radiography. Blood and sputum cultures were obtained, and he was empirically started on intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin. Today, both blood and sputum cultures are growing Streptococcus pneumoniae. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals the isolate is susceptible to penicillin, amoxicillin, ceftriaxone, and levofloxacin. The patient has improved significantly; his fever has resolved, his cough is much improved, and he is comfortably breathing room air with an oxygen saturation of 97%. He is tolerating a regular diet and mobilizing well. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ADiscontinue oral azithromycin and continue intravenous ceftriaxone
- BDiscontinue the current antibiotics and transition to oral levofloxacin
- Discontinue the current antibiotics and transition to oral amoxicillinAnswer
- DDiscontinue the current antibiotics and transition to oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- EContinue both intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin