An ambulatory 61-year-old man presents to his primary care provider reporting a persistent feeling of heaviness and a dull ache in his right scrotum that he first noticed three weeks ago. He denies any history of scrotal trauma, dysuria, gross hematuria, urgency, or fevers. His medical history includes essential hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medication. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 138/86 mmHg, and pulse is 76/min. Physical examination of the genitalia reveals a soft, irregular, tortuous mass in the right hemiscrotum that feels like a 'bag of worms.' When the patient is asked to lie in the supine position, the mass does not decrease in size. Both testicles are palpable, symmetric, and without firm nodules. Transillumination of the scrotum is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvisAnswer
- BScrotal ultrasonography with Doppler
- CReassurance and application of a scrotal supporter
- DMeasurement of serum alpha-fetoprotein and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin
- EPercutaneous embolization of the gonadal vein