A 72-year-old man is evaluated for a new-onset fever on postoperative day 4 following an open repair of a ventral hernia. He has been recovering well, tolerating a regular diet, and ambulating with assistance in the surgical ward hallways. An indwelling urethral catheter was placed prior to surgery and removed on postoperative day 2. Today, his temperature is (). Blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Oxygen saturation is on room air. The patient reports feeling slightly fatigued but denies shortness of breath, cough, nausea, or calf pain. He notes that he has been urinating more frequently than usual since the catheter was removed, which he attributes to his postoperative intravenous fluids. Examination shows a soft abdomen with mild tenderness near the surgical incision. The incision is clean and intact with no erythema, induration, or purulent discharge. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Obtain a urinalysis and urine cultureAnswer
- BRequest a portable chest radiograph
- CObtain a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- DPerform a lower extremity venous Doppler ultrasound
- EAdminister empiric broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy