A -year-old woman, gravida , para , comes to the gynecologist reporting a vulvar lesion that she first noticed months ago. She states that the area is occasionally pruritic and bleeds slightly when wiped. Her past medical history is notable for lichen sclerosus, which was diagnosed years ago and is managed with intermittent topical clobetasol. Menopause occurred at age . On physical examination, the vagina and cervix appear atrophic. On the right labium majus, approximately cm lateral to the midline, there is a cm, firm, ulcerated, unifocal nodule. There are no palpable inguinal lymph nodes. A punch biopsy of the nodule confirms invasive squamous cell carcinoma with a depth of invasion of mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Radical local excision with right inguinofemoral lymph node evaluationAnswer
- BRadical local excision with bilateral inguinofemoral lymph node evaluation
- CRadical local excision without lymph node evaluation
- DTopical application of imiquimod cream
- EPrimary external beam radiotherapy to the vulva and groins