An obstetrician is called to evaluate a nulliparous patient in active labor at 39 weeks gestation. The patient, who has had an uncomplicated prenatal course, was admitted at 6 cm cervical dilation. Shortly after receiving continuous epidural analgesia for pain management, she reports feeling profoundly lightheaded, nauseous, and visually blurred. A focused assessment reveals a maternal blood pressure of 82/48 mm Hg and a heart rate of 112/min. Concurrently, the continuous fetal monitor demonstrates a sudden drop in the fetal heart rate from a baseline of 145/min to 85/min, which has now persisted for 3 minutes without recovery. The nursing staff has already turned the patient onto her left side and administered a rapid 500 mL intravenous bolus of lactated Ringer's solution. Upon reassessment 3 minutes later, the maternal blood pressure is 84/50 mm Hg and the fetal heart rate remains at 85/min.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous ephedrine administrationAnswer
- BEmergent cesarean delivery
- CSubcutaneous terbutaline administration
- DIntrauterine amnioinfusion
- EIntravenous oxytocin administration