Reviewing culture data on the third day of hospitalization, an internal medicine team evaluates a 71-year-old woman admitted for severe sepsis secondary to pyelonephritis. At presentation, she had a temperature of (), a blood pressure of , and severe right flank pain. She was fluid-resuscitated and started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone.
Her past medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and a self-reported penicillin allergy, which she describes as 'severe nausea and diarrhea' occurring after taking an antibiotic for a sinus infection 15 years ago.
Currently, the patient is clinically stable. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . The right costovertebral angle tenderness has resolved. Her white blood cell count has decreased from to .
Both urine and blood cultures drawn at admission are growing *Enterococcus faecalis*. The isolate is susceptible to ampicillin, vancomycin, linezolid, and daptomycin. A transesophageal echocardiogram demonstrates no evidence of valvular vegetations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's antimicrobial management?
- Discontinue all current antibiotics and initiate intravenous ampicillinAnswer
- BDiscontinue ceftriaxone and continue intravenous vancomycin
- CDiscontinue all current antibiotics and initiate intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DDiscontinue all current antibiotics and initiate intravenous daptomycin
- EDiscontinue all current antibiotics and initiate oral linezolid