A 76-year-old retired architect is brought to the clinic by his son. Over the past months, the patient has experienced a progressive decline in his cognitive abilities. His son notes that the patient's alertness fluctuates significantly from day to day; he sometimes stares blankly for several minutes during conversations. The patient also frequently reports seeing unfamiliar children playing in his living room, though he is not distressed by their presence. His medical history includes major depressive disorder, for which he has taken fluoxetine for years. Vital signs are within normal limits. Neurological examination reveals a resting tremor in the left hand, symmetric rigidity, and a slow, shuffling gait. The Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) score is . Laboratory studies show:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): (normal: )
Free thyroxine (T4): (normal: )
The son is overwhelmed by the recent changes and demands that his father be admitted to a locked psychiatric facility immediately. However, the patient's previously executed advance directive designates his wife as the healthcare proxy and expresses a clear preference for home-based care.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Initiate rivastigmine therapyAnswer
- BAdd selegiline to the current medication regimen
- CAuthorize psychiatric admission at the son's request
- DInitiate levothyroxine supplementation
- EInitiate haloperidol for schizophreniform disorder