An obstetric team is managing a multiparous patient at 36 weeks gestation who is admitted to the labor unit for induction of labor due to poorly controlled gestational diabetes. Her prenatal care was delayed, and she had only a single second-trimester ultrasound which was reportedly normal. Following artificial rupture of membranes at 5 centimeters of cervical dilation to place an internal fetal scalp electrode, the patient immediately develops moderate, bright red vaginal bleeding. Her blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. The electronic fetal monitor subsequently demonstrates a visually smooth, undulating baseline heart rate that fluctuates evenly between 130 and 150/min. This pattern repeats 4 times per minute and exhibits an absolute lack of short-term beat-to-beat variability. The fetal heart rate does not change in response to vibroacoustic stimulation. Uterine contractions remain regular every 4 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AAdminister an intravenous fluid bolus and reposition the patient to the left lateral decubitus position
- BReassure the patient that these findings represent normal cervical changes and a physiologic fetal sleep cycle
- Perform an emergent cesarean deliveryAnswer
- DAdminister intravenous terbutaline to temporarily halt uterine contractions
- EDraw maternal blood for an urgent Kleihauer-Betke test to determine the source of hemorrhage