During a high school basketball tournament, a 16-year-old boy suddenly drops to the floor, gripping his groin. He is rushed to the nearest acute care center. Upon evaluation, he reports an abrupt onset of agonizing right-sided testicular pain accompanied by nausea and one episode of emesis. He denies any direct trauma to the groin during the game. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination reveals a markedly swollen, tender, and erythematous right hemiscrotum. The right testis is significantly elevated compared to the left and rests in a transverse orientation. Stroking the superior medial aspect of the right thigh yields no elevation of the right testis, although the reflex is completely intact on the left side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate bilateral scrotal explorationAnswer
- BScrotal duplex ultrasonography
- CAdministration of intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
- DManual testicular detorsion and discharge with outpatient follow-up
- EUrinalysis and midstream urine culture