A -year-old nulliparous woman comes to the clinic for a -month history of intermittent vaginal spotting. She went through menopause at age . Her medical history is significant for obesity (BMI ), type 2 diabetes mellitus, and essential hypertension. She takes metformin and lisinopril. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals normal external genitalia and a small amount of dark blood at the cervical os. Bimanual examination is limited by body habitus. A transvaginal ultrasound demonstrates an endometrial stripe thickness of with a heterogeneous appearance. No adnexal masses are noted. An office endometrial biopsy is attempted, but the sampling catheter cannot be advanced past the internal cervical os due to severe cervical stenosis. The patient reports significant discomfort, and the procedure is aborted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Hysteroscopy with dilation and curettageAnswer
- BTotal extrafascial hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis
- DRepeat transvaginal ultrasound in months
- EEmpirical continuous progestin therapy