A 68-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital on the third day of admission for acute pyelonephritis. She initially presented with fever, right-sided flank pain, nausea, and vomiting. She was empirically started on intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam. Today, the patient reports feeling much better. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination shows resolution of costovertebral angle tenderness. She is tolerating a regular diet without nausea.
The urine culture obtained on admission has finalized, showing of *Escherichia coli*. Susceptibility testing results are as follows:
| Antibiotic | Result |
|---|---|
| Amoxicillin | Resistant |
| Ceftriaxone | Susceptible |
| Ciprofloxacin | Resistant |
| Nitrofurantoin | Susceptible |
| Piperacillin-tazobactam | Susceptible |
| Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole | Susceptible |
Blood cultures obtained on admission show no growth to date.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Transition to oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazoleAnswer
- BTransition to oral nitrofurantoin
- CTransition to oral ciprofloxacin
- DContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- ETransition to intravenous ceftriaxone