While recovering on the surgical unit, a 68-year-old male is evaluated for new-onset respiratory distress and increased sputum production. The patient is currently on postoperative day 2 following an open partial colectomy for adenocarcinoma. His past medical history includes severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), osteoarthritis, and hypertension. He continues to smoke one pack of cigarettes daily.
Vital signs show a temperature of 38.7°C (101.6°F), pulse of 112/min, blood pressure of 138/82 mm Hg, and respirations of 26/min. Pulse oximetry reading is 88% on ambient air. Physical examination reveals a barrel-shaped chest with diffuse, bilateral expiratory wheezing and a prolonged expiratory phase. Jugular venous pressure is normal, and heart sounds are regular without any S3 gallop. The abdominal incision is clean, dry, and intact with no surrounding erythema. Both calves are soft, compressible, and nontender. A portable chest radiograph displays hyperinflated lung fields along with a newly developed dense consolidation in the left lower lobe.
Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select 3)
- Administration of intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycinAnswer
- Delivery of aerosolized short-acting bronchodilatorsAnswer
- Administration of systemic glucocorticoidsAnswer
- DIntravenous push of a loop diuretic
- EBilateral lower extremity venous duplex ultrasound
- FRemoval of staples and packing of the surgical incision