A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance due to the sudden onset of severe, excruciating chest pain that radiates to his interscapular region. Shortly after the pain began, he developed severe shortness of breath. His medical history is significant for poorly controlled hypertension, tobacco use, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. On arrival, his blood pressure is 185/105 mmHg in the right arm and 178/100 mmHg in the left arm. His pulse is 118/min, and his respiratory rate is 28/min with an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals a diaphoretic man in severe respiratory distress. Lung auscultation demonstrates diffuse bilateral expiratory wheezing with crackles at the lung bases. Cardiovascular examination reveals a new decrescendo diastolic murmur loudest at the right upper sternal border. An electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia with left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological step in the management of this patient?
- Intravenous esmololAnswer
- BInhaled albuterol and intravenous methylprednisolone
- CIntravenous sodium nitroprusside
- DIntravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- EIntravenous unfractionated heparin