A 32-year-old pregnant patient, gravida 2, para 1, presents to the obstetric triage unit at 38 weeks gestation reporting painful uterine contractions. The pregnancy has been notable for an anatomy ultrasound at 20 weeks showing a succenturiate placental lobe. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 86/min. The initial fetal heart rate baseline is 145/min with moderate variability and no decelerations. Cervical examination shows 5 cm dilation and intact membranes. Three hours into her admission, the patient experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes, accompanied by a moderate amount of bright red vaginal bleeding. Immediately following this event, the fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a prolonged deceleration that evolves into a sinusoidal pattern with a baseline of 90/min. Uterine resting tone is normal, and contractions are occurring every 3 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
- AAdministration of a tocolytic agent
- BAdministration of warmed amnioinfusion
- Immediate cesarean deliveryAnswer
- DExpectant management with continued labor monitoring
- EEmergency bedside transvaginal ultrasonography