A 62-year-old man is hospitalized for severe, unremitting lower back pain and fever. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. Physical examination reveals focal tenderness to palpation over the L4 and L5 spinous processes. Magnetic resonance imaging of the lumbar spine confirms L4-L5 vertebral osteomyelitis. Blood cultures are drawn, and the patient is empirically started on intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone. On day 3 of hospitalization, he is clinically stable and afebrile. Final blood culture results return positive for Staphylococcus aureus. Susceptibility testing shows resistance to penicillin, and susceptibility to oxacillin, cefazolin, vancomycin, and daptomycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antibiotic therapy?
- Discontinue the current regimen and begin intravenous cefazolinAnswer
- BDiscontinue ceftriaxone and continue intravenous vancomycin
- CContinue the current regimen of vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- DDiscontinue the current regimen and begin intravenous daptomycin
- EContinue the current regimen and add oral rifampin