An emergency department physician evaluates a 29-year-old man who presents with a rapidly spreading, painful dermatologic eruption. The patient has a known psychiatric history of bipolar I disorder, for which he has been maintained on divalproex sodium for the past four years without any manic relapses. Six weeks ago, his outpatient psychiatrist prescribed an additional medication to address a severe, functionally impairing depressive episode. Upon physical examination, the patient's temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F). There is a widespread, tender, purpuric maculopapular rash exhibiting epidermal detachment when lateral pressure is applied. Erosions are visible on the buccal mucosa and bilateral conjunctivae. Which of the following prescribing oversights is the most likely cause of this patient's current presentation?
- Failure to halve the standard initial dosage and titration rate of the new medicationAnswer
- BOmission of genetic screening for the HLA-B*1502 allele prior to treatment initiation
- CCo-administration of two agents that strongly induce hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes
- DInitiation of a serotonergic agent that displaced divalproex sodium from plasma proteins
- EConcurrent use of two medications that compete for proximal renal tubular secretion